Download WACS Past Questions PDF 2021 | West African College of Surgeons

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List of Past Questions Available for West African College of Surgeons (WACS) Examination

• Anaesthesia
• Dental Surgery
• Obstetrics & Gynaecology
• Ophthalmology
• Otorhinolaryngology
• Radiology
• Surgery
• Orthopaedics

Free WACS Past Questions (Samples for OnG)

Question 1. All of the following are changes that occur to the fetal circulation within minutes of birth EXCEPT for which?
a) Constriction of the umbilical vessels
b) Constriction of the ductus venosus
c) Constriction of the ductus arteriosus
d) Constriction of the hepatic portal sinus
e) Closure of the foramen ovale
Correct answer: D
Explanations:
Within minutes of birth, the fetal circulatory system undergoes marked changes, which include constriction of the umbilical vessels, constriction of the ductus arteriosus and ductus venosus, and closure of the foramen ovale. The hepatic portal sinus does not close.

Question 2. Levels of hCG in the maternal circulation typically peak at what level and at what gestational age?
a) 100,000 mIU/mL at 10 weeks
b) 10,000 mIU/mL at 10 weeks
c) 10,000 mIU/mL at 20 weeks
d) 100,000 mIU/mL at 40 weeks
e) 10,000 mIU/mL at 40 weeks
Correct answer: A
Explanations:
Human CG is produced by the syncytiotrophoblast and levels increase in the maternal serum from the moment of implantation. In a singleton pregnancy, levels peak at around 10 weeks’ gestation at a concentration of approximately 100,000 mIU/mL.

Question 3. A maternal “quad” screen performed at 18 weeks’ gestation returns with the following results: α-fetoprotein (AFP) 0.5 MoM (multiples of the median), estriol 0.6 MoM, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) 2.0 MoM, and inhibin 1.8 MoM. Which fetal disorder is most likely given this serum analyte profile?
a) Open neural tube defect
b) Trisomy 21
c) Trisomy 18
d) Trisomy 13
e) Turner syndrome

Correct answer: B
Explanations:
Elevated levels of hCG and inhibin along with decreased levels of AFP and estriol typically indicate a fetus affected by trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).

Question 4. Which of the following observations would NOT be expected to be seen on an obstetric ultrasound at 7 weeks’ gestation?
a) Chorionic sac
b) Yolk sac
c) Embryo with cardiac activity
d) Embryo demonstrating movement
e) Physiologic bowel herniation
Correct answer: E
Explanations:
Sonographic findings of physiologic bowel herniation would be expected to be seen only at 8–12 weeks’ gestation. Therefore, a 7-week ultrasound would not be expected to demonstrate this finding.

Question 5. A number of screening tests are performed in all pregnancies at designated gestational ages. Which of the following screening tests is correctly matched with the gestational age?
a) Glucose load test at the first prenatal visit
b) Chlamydia test at 22–24 weeks
c) Fetal anatomic survey at 34–36 weeks
d) Group B β-hemolytic streptococcus (GBS) carrier status at 35–37 weeks
e) Rubella serology at the 6-week postpartum visit
Correct answer: D
Explanations:
A perineal culture for GBS carrier status is recommended for all pregnant women between 35 and 37 weeks’ gestation. Rubella serology and chlamydia testing should be performed at the first prenatal visit. A fetal anatomic survey is typically conducted at 18–22 weeks. Glucose load testing for gestational diabetes is typically done at 24–28 weeks’ gestation.

Question 6. Chorioamnionitis (intra-amniotic infection) is typically caused by which of the following organisms?
a) Group B β-hemolytic streptococcus (GBS)
b) Escherichia coli
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Ureaplasma urealyticum
e) Multiple pathogens
Correct answer: E
Explanations:
Chorioamnionitis (intra-amniotic infection) is typically a polymicrobial infection involving multiple organisms ascending from the vagina into the uterine cavity.

Question 7. Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of early onset neonatal conjunctivitis?
a) GBS
b) Toxoplasmosis
c) Chlamydia
d) Trichomoniasis
e) E. coli
Correct answer: C
Explanations:
Several organisms can cause neonatal conjunctivitis, but the most common cause is Chlamydia trachomatis. Moreover, many women with chlamydia infection are asymptomatic. For this reason, it is routine practice to administer erythromycin or silver nitrate prophylaxis to the eyes of all infants within 1 hour of birth.

Question 8. A 24-year-old G2P1 presents at 36 weeks’ gestation in active labor. Her GBS culture is not available. Which of the following represents the most appropriate management in this setting?
a) Do nothing
b) Administer GBS chemoprophylaxis empirically
c) Administer antibiotics only if she develops a fever
d) Send a GBS perineal culture and wait for the result to decide whether or not to give antibiotics
e) Review her GBS status from her prior pregnancy to decide whether or not to give antibiotics
Correct answer: B
Explanations:
If a patient present in labor and her GBS perineal carrier status is unknown, she should be treated with intrapartum GBS chemoprophylaxis only if she has one or more of the following risk factors: (1) if she is preterm, (2) if she had a prior infant with GBS sepsis, (3) if she had GBS bacteriuria in the index pregnancy, (4) if she has rupture of membranes >18 hours, or (5) if she has a fever. A GBS culture typically takes 48 hours to perform, so it is too late to send in labor. The rapid GBS test is not reliable; as such, it is not recommended that a rapid GBS test be sent in labor.

Question 9. An 18-year-old G1P0 presents at 30 weeks’ gestation complaining of malodorous vaginal discharge. A wet prep reveals motile flagellated organisms. The treatment plan would include which of the following antibiotics?
a) Ampicillin
b) Metronidazole
c) Diflucan
d) Gentamicin
e) Bactrim
Correct answer: B
Explanations:
Motile flagellated organisms suggest a diagnosis of Trichomonas vaginalis. Treatment is either metronidazole or tinidazole.

Question 10. A 24-year-old G3P2 presents to your office for the first time at 26 weeks’ gestation. She recently arrived from West Africa and has had no prenatal care. You plant a PPD (purified protein derivative), which at 72 hours measures 12 mm induration. Which of the following management options is most appropriate?
a) Do not do any further testing because she is asymptomatic
b) Defer further evaluation until after the pregnancy
c) Initiate INH (isoniazid) therapy immediately
d) Initiate combined INH and ethambutol therapy immediately
e) Obtain a chest radiograph
Correct answer: E
Explanations:
The first steps to take when evaluating a patient with a positive PPD are: (1) to review her history to see if she is symptomatic (weight loss, fevers, night sweats, cough, hemoptysis, shortness of breath) and (2) to perform a chest radiograph regardless of whether or not she is symptomatic. If the chest radiograph is negative, she should be treated with INH for 9 months. This can be started during pregnancy or deferred until 6 weeks postpartum (starting treatment in the puerperium has been associated with an increased risk of hepatic injury). If the chest radiograph is suggestive of active TB, early morning sputum samples should be sent to confirm the diagnosis and she should be treated with a triple antibiotic regimen for a minimum of 1 year.

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WACS Exam Date & Schedule:

OCTOBER 2021 PRIMARY, DIPLOMA IN ANAESTHESIA, MEMBERSHIP/PART I & FELLOWSHIP/PART II EXAMINATIONS
The October 2021 Fellowship examinations of the West African College of Surgeons (WACS), in the Faculties of Anaesthesia, Dental Surgery, Obstetrics and Gynaecology, Ophthalmology, Otorhinolaryngology (ORL), Orthopaedics, Radiology and Surgery, will hold from 20th October to 29th October 2021

For all levels of application, log on to www.wacscoac.org and follow the step-by-step procedure for online applications.

The Primary examinations will hold on Wednesday 20th October 2021 in nine (9) centres as follows:

• Abuja, Nigeria
• Accra, Ghana
• Banjul, The Gambia
• Dakar, Senegal
• Enugu, Nigeria
• Freetown, Sierra Leone
• Ibadan, Nigeria
• Kumasi, Ghana
• Monrovia, Liberia.

Primary examinations for all Faculties shall be by Computer Based Test (CBT). Further information on the venues of the CBT shall be announced later via www.wacscoac.org

Candidates sitting for the Primary examination can now apply for Orthopaedics as an additional Faculty to the existing seven Faculties of the College above.

REQUIREMENTS FOR PRIMARY EXAMINATIONS

• MBBS/ BDS certificate from a recognized university.
• Full registration certificate with Medical and Dental Council of your country (Receipt of payment for full registration or provisional registration or annual practicing license is NOT acceptable).
• Certification page (to be downloaded from the website, filled, and submitted online)
• Evidence of a change of name (where applicable).

DIPLOMA IN ANAESTHESIA EXAMINATION CENTRES

National Hospital, Abuja/University of Abuja Teaching Hospital, Abuja, Nigeria.

Korle-Bu Teaching Hospital (KBTH)Accra, Ghana.
University College Hospital (UCH) Ibadan, Nigeria.

REQUIREMENTS FOR DIPLOMA IN ANAESTHESIA

• {Diploma in Anaesthesia multiple choice examinations shall be by Computer Based Test (CBT)}
• Completion of the requisite twelve (12) months training in Anaesthesia in an accredited institution.
  Photocopy of APPROVED LOGBOOK / PORTFOLIO to be uploaded on the portal, (No hard copy is needed at the Secretariat).
• Certification page (to be downloaded from the website, filled, and submitted online).
• Evidence of a change of name (where applicable).

MEMBERSHIP (PART I) EXAMINATION CENTRES

National Hospital, Abuja/University of Abuja Teaching Hospital, Abuja, Nigeria.

Korle-Bu Teaching Hospital (KBTH)Accra, Ghana.
University College Hospital (UCH) Ibadan, Nigeria.
All Membership/Part I multiple choice examinations shall be by Computer Based Test (CBT).

REQUIREMENTS FOR MEMBERSHIP/PART I

• Primary examination certificate of the West African College of Surgeons or its equivalent with exemption certificate
• Satisfactorily completed appropriate years of postgraduate training as prescribed by the relevant Faculty in the institution(s) accredited for the purpose by the College.
• Original Certificate of Training (COT) form with dates of commencement and completion of training to be uploaded on the website (No hard copy is to be submitted to the College.)
• Original APPROVED LOGBOOK should be uploaded on the portal (No hard copy is needed at the College).
• Evidence of registration as a Surgeon in Training
• Authentication form, to be downloaded from the website, fill it with proper endorsement from Fellows and Head of Department and upload it on the website.
• Certificates of attendance of relevant revision courses/updates.
• Evidence of change of name (where applicable)

FELLOWSHIP (PART II) EXAMINATION CENTRES

National Hospital/University of Abuja Teaching Hospital, Abuja, Nigeria
Korle-Bu Teaching Hospital (KBTH)Accra, Ghana
University College Hospital (UCH) Ibadan, Nigeria
Candidates sitting for the Fellowship (final) examination can now apply for Orthopaedics as an additional Faculty to the existing seven Faculties of the College.

All Fellowship multiple choice examinations shall be by Computer Based Test (CBT)

REQUIREMENTS FOR FELLOWSHIP/PART II EXAMINATIONS

• Membership/Part I certificate of the West African College of Surgeons or its equivalent.
• It is mandatory for candidates who were awarded Membership to upload their certificates on the portal, as statement of result will not be accepted.
• Satisfactorily completed appropriate years of postgraduate training and worked in their specialties for at least two years in the institution(s) accredited for the purpose by the College.
• Original Certificates of Training (COT) form with dates of commencement and completion of training to be uploaded on the website.
• Original APPROVED LOGBOOK should be uploaded on the College website (No hard copy should be submitted to the College).
• Certificates of attendance of Manuscript Writing Workshop and Health Management and Ethics workshop.
• Authentication form, to be downloaded from the website, fill it with proper endorsement from Fellows and
• Head of Department and upload it on the website.
• Certificates of attendance of relevant revision courses/updates.
• Evidence of a change of name (where applicable).
• Only candidates that submitted dissertations in April 2021 and have been cleared by their assessors need apply for October 2021 having fulfilled all other requirements. Any candidate whose dissertation is rejected will have to wait till April 2022 before application. An exception to this rule are candidates that were referred at the April 2021 fellowship examination in dissertations.